Truth.Seeker
posted on Oct 21, 2009 - 10:18 PM
That's what I thought (Eucharist is limited to married persons). Is PaulS's original statement unqualified? He said, "We do not refuse Holy Communion to Roman Orthodox persons and vice versa." Do we only not refuse it if the Byzantine Orthodox is married to a Copt AND is from a Byzantine Orthodox Church in St. Mark's See?
I used to be able to find this 1998 document on Wikipedia some years ago, I can't find it now for some reason. I second Mina's request - anyone have it?